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Rearfoot eversion has indirect effects on plantar fascia tension by changing the amount of arch coll

Discussion in 'Biomechanics, Sports and Foot orthoses' started by NewsBot, Jul 27, 2010.

  1. NewsBot

    NewsBot The Admin that posts the news.

    Articles:
    1

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    Rearfoot eversion has indirect effects on plantar fascia tension by changing the amount of arch collapse.
    Lee SY, Hertel J, Lee SC.
    Foot (Edinb). 2010 Jul 23
     
  2. David Smith

    David Smith Well-Known Member


    Am I being unkind or a little dense when I say 'well duuh'!


    Dave
     
  3. My response was ........... and ?...........

    Maybe Ian will put this in the thread on pointless research
     
  4. I was thinking the same thing. Now we need some research to tell us that subtalar joint pronation actually causes increased medial forefoot pressures and decreased lateral forefoot pressures. We do need research evidence to be able to say this with good confidence.....don't we?:bang::craig::butcher:
     
  5. Craig Payne

    Craig Payne Moderator

    Articles:
    8
    I away from office for a few days and can not access this. How did they actually measure 'tension in the plantar fascia'?
     
  6. Griff

    Griff Moderator

    .....
    [32] Scott SH, Winter DA. Internal forces of chronic running injury sites. Medicine and Science in Sports Exercise 1990; 22(3):357–69.
     

    Attached Files:

  7. perrone

    perrone Member

    My thoughts exactly!
     
  8. efuller

    efuller MVP

    I was wondering how they consistently bisected the heel across subjects. How did they figure one subject had more eversion than another without bisecting the heel.

    Eric
     
  9. Bruce Williams

    Bruce Williams Well-Known Member

    Kevin;
    actually you do need that evidence documented because it does not work that way in my experience.

    The opposite is true depending on exactly where you make the split for determining medial and lateral aspects of the forefoot.


    :drinks
    Bruce
     
  10. Bruce Williams

    Bruce Williams Well-Known Member

    I think we all are missing the point from the diagram here.

    If you assume that the STJ will maximally pronate from heel contact to midstance, and the heel will maximally evert as well, then the heel bisection will not necessarily make a difference, corect?

    What really makes a difference in the diagram used to base the formula is the dorsiflexion of the 1st ray, which will lead to a lower medial arch height. As well, whether the ankle joint "adequately" dorsiflexes, which again will have an effect on the medial arch height and the STJ position so long as the heel is in contact with the ground and the first MPJ has effectively dorsiflexed.

    It seems that the ankle joint was not a part of this equation, as usual. If the AJ does not effectively Dorsiflex, the rearfoot will not be able to invert until it has lost contact with the ground completely and the first MPJ has dorsiflexed. This will delay STJ supination, or prolong the STJ pronation.

    There lies the true problem from my perspective.
    :drinks
    Bruce
     
  11. efuller

    efuller MVP

    I wrote

    Originally Posted by efuller View Post
    I was wondering how they consistently bisected the heel across subjects. How did they figure one subject had more eversion than another without bisecting the heel. ​

    Bruce Replied
    The original article stated
    CONCLUSION: The amount of maximum rearfoot eversion motion itself is not a good predictor of plantar fascia tension, however, together with the arch height, maximum rearfoot eversion motion is a good predictor because it has a pronounced indirect effect on plantar fascia tension


    I haven't read the paper, but the conclusion states that maximum rearfoot eversion motion. I may have made a mistake and thought that the paper was describing maximum everted position. In that case the heel bisection would matter. If one were to interpret maximum rearfoot eversion motion as maximum amount of motion then you would be right that the heel bisection location does not matter. I am confused by the insertion of maximum. You could state the latter interpretation better by just saying total eversion motion.




    Bruce, I'm not following your last paragraph. The ankle joint and STJ are independent joints. It is possible to supinate the STJ when the ankle is plantarflexed or dorsiflexed. It's also possible to supinate the STJ independent of 1st MPJ position. The STJ can supinate independent of whether or not the heel is on the ground.

    Regards,

    Eric
     
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