Please help

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Hi, My name is Claire and I'm doing the following assignment:
A 55 year old lady presents in clinic with a painful right first metatarsal phalangeal joint. This has been getting more painful over the last 12 months but has been a problem for about 5 years.
She is fairly active and wears a sensible shoe but at times likes to wear a small heeled shoe. Her general health is good but she has a mild degree of hypertension for which she takes bendroflumethiazide and atenolol. She has seen her GP and all blood tests have been negative.
She has had x-rays taken which show a long first metatarsal with moderate cystic changes in the head and base of the 1st MPJ. The range of motion in the joint is approx 50 degrees and the quality of motion is poor.

What type of surgery would this patient need is the closing wedge proximal phalanx osteotomy which is also known as the Moberg osteotomy the right choice?

Thanks!

 

just refer her for surgery to an expert this would be the best course of action

 

The case Claire presented I think is a case study for an assignment not a real patient .