Hello, first post so please be gentle ;)
Members do not see these Ads. Sign Up.
Can someone please explain in simple terms, the clinical significance of the difference between a diagnosis of plantar fasciitis and plantar fasciosis? (apart from not using corticosteroids in the absence of inflammation).
I'm trying to write an introduction to a 3rd year project proposal comparing 2 treatment modalities for proximal plantar fasciitis. While I don't want to get too caught up in this issue as a) it's outside the scope of the project and b) I have a very limited word count, I do believe the devil is in the detail, and I want to at least acknowledge this debate rather than just state that plantar fasciitis pain is due to inflammation at the origin of the plantar fascia and/or intrinsic muscles etc. Or should I just stick to this definition?
What I think i'm trying to get at is: would treatment along the lines of reducing the tensile stress on the tissues (plantar fascia and gastrocs eg. by night splint) still be indicated regardless if research discovers the condition is an 'osis' or a combination of 'osis' and 'itis'.
Sorry if it's an obvious question, i've read that many papers today i've managed to properly confuse myself. Which admittedly isn't that difficult :wacko:
Tags:
<
Orthotic instead of AFO
|
HELP
>
<
Orthotic instead of AFO
|
HELP
>
Loading...
- Similar Threads - Plantar fasciitis versus
-
- Replies:
- 1
- Views:
- 2,037
-
- Replies:
- 2
- Views:
- 13,677
-
- Replies:
- 18
- Views:
- 16,021
-
- Replies:
- 4
- Views:
- 14,504
-
- Replies:
- 1
- Views:
- 276
-
- Replies:
- 16
- Views:
- 1,740
-
- Replies:
- 1
- Views:
- 597