Hi all,
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student here, just wondering...
does a plantarflexed 1st ray increase the likelihood of functional hallux limitus?
my thinking is: if the metatarsal is already further through its available range of plantarflexion, then there is less metatarsal plantarflexion available to allow for adequate hallux dorsiflexion :confused:
is this plausible? or am i just being:pigs:?
thanks,
Apollus
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