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An article referred to in Ian Griffiths f/b
"Ankle-Dorsiflexion Range of Motion after Ankle Self-Stretching using a Strap", Journal for Athletic Training, In-choel Jeon et al


'Static Stretching on the Incline Board
Each participant flexed the knee slightly while standing on a 10 (deg) incline board. The participant was asked to slightly flex both knees. The participant was asked to slightly flex both knees until a stretch was felt in the calf muscle.'

My query is why were the participant asked to flex the knees, rather than extend, to get a 'stretch' in the calves?

Thanks for any replies

Last thread re 'transverse plane motion' I queried adduction-abduction as a TP motion. I was thinking hip, knee and not sub-talar joint; not very clever for a podiatrist

 

'Static Stretching on the Incline Board
Each participant flexed the knee slightly while standing on a 10 (deg) incline board. The participant was asked to slightly flex both knees. The participant was asked to slightly flex both knees until a stretch was felt in the calf muscle.'

My query is why were the participant asked to flex the knees, rather than extend, to get a 'stretch' in the calves?'



-presumably this is to ensure that the full range of dorsiflexion (hopefully 10 degrees) occurred at the talocrural joint, without any restriction from a tight gastroc (origin above the knee)?

It's a strange way of going about biomech examination!! - but it would indicate a tight (short) gastrocnemius if the knee could not be straightened without 'stretch' being felt ....

 

Thanks Johnpod, sorry I didn't phrase that question well; it was the second 'flex' in, "The participant was asked to slightly flex both knees until a stretch was felt in the calf muscle." that had me bamboozled; how can a knee straighten by flexing?