As most footwear has a thicker heel region than forefoot region, does the shod foot function with a plantarflexed forefoot component, or is it all ankle plantarflexion. If there is a plantarflexed forefoot component can the mid-tarsal joints plantarflex independently or would it be resultant from a subtalar supination. If the answer is obvious, i apologise (must have missed that lesson), thanks
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