Dear All and particularly Kevin Kirby
Members do not see these Ads. Sign Up.
When locating and marking the position of the STJ axis it is common to find that it is medially rotated. However it is also usual, for me at least and I think you can see this in Kevin and Simons paper on determining dynamic STJ axis location (J Am Podiatr Med Assoc 96(3): 212-219, 2006 page 218 fig 7 B) that the posterior exit point is lateral to the calcaneal bisection. Therefore although it is medialy rotated it is also lateraly translated relative to the longitudinal axis of the foot.
This means that although there is less ability for GRF acting on the forefoot to supinate the STJ at the same time there is increased ability for the rearfoot to increase STJ supination at heel strike and in particular if the foot strikes with an internally rotated position.
This query was promted by a query made on another site whcih remained unanswered and also by the fact that I had a rugby player who had an extremely internally rotated and laterally deviated STJ axis and (really noticeable with slo mo video) internally rotated his hip and foot just before heel strike resulting in frequent inversion ankle sprains while playing rugby and always just when stopping and changing direction.
How should we describe this STJ axis position, just medial rotation or medial rotation in dgs and lateral translation in mm perhaps. Or is medial rotation sufficient and it is taken that since the centre of rotation is in the centre of the rearfoot somewhere, that this will automatically mean that the exit point of the STJ axis will always be lateral to the calc bisection when it is medially rotated? What do you think?
Cheers Dave
Loading...
- Similar Threads - examining Defining terms
-
- Replies:
- 13
- Views:
- 9,861
-
- Replies:
- 5
- Views:
- 11,254
-
- Replies:
- 3
- Views:
- 1,331
-
- Replies:
- 85
- Views:
- 11,985
-
- Replies:
- 11
- Views:
- 7,144
-
- Replies:
- 0
- Views:
- 8,654
-
- Replies:
- 2
- Views:
- 10,630