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Here is an interesting find: http://www.plosone.org/article/comments/info%3Adoi%2F10.1371%2Fjournal.pone.0010984;jsessionid=695AF734F27A8F0F7AEC530E369E0391.ambra02
Discovery of shoegear in the 4th Century BC. It is formed to the foot. Does it appear that hallux valgus may have been present in the wearer?
Ed

 

eddavisdpm

I recall reading an article in an archeological journal on a shoe find in Roman Britian. Apparently they did a biomechanical analysis on the shoes (adults and childen) based upon wearmarks and repairs and concluded the foot types were no different to today. This is actually not too surprising since evolution if the human foot would not change that much in such a short period of time.

I also recall an anthropological paper where the authors extrapolated over 90% of human feet had 'clinical HAV' present. (ie 10 degrees lateral deviation of the hallux).

I think asymptomatic HAV is more normal than we currently are prepared to accept and is likely to be a characteristic of being bipedal. Hence it would not surprise me to see evidence of HAV in earlier footwear.

What say you?

toeslayer